Bihar Board 12th Biology Objective Questions and Answers
Bihar Board 12th Biology VVI Objective Questions Model Set 2 in English
Question 1.
Which one of the following experiments suggests that simplest living organisms could not have originated spontaneously from non-living matter?
(a) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter.
(b) Microbes can appear on bread kept at a moist place.
(c) Microbes appear on unsterilised organic matter.
(d) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept sealed in a vessel
Answer:
(d) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept sealed in a vessel
Question 2.
Who proposed that the first form of the could have come from pre-existing non-living organic molecules?
(a) S.L. Miller
(b) Oparin and Haldane
(c) Charles Darwin
(d) Alfred Wallace
Answer:
(b) Oparin and Haldane
Question 3.
Which one of the following disease is non-communicable?
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Flu
(c) Cancer
(d) Malaria
Answer:
(c) Cancer
Question 4.
Which of the following pairs contains an infectious and a non- infectious disease respectively?
(a) Typhoid and AIDS
(b) AIDS and cancer
(c) Pneumonia and malaria
(d) Cancer and malaria
Answer:
(b) AIDS and cancer
Question 5.
Which of the following is the “bird flu virus”?
(a) H5N1
(b) Haemophilus influenzae
(c) HIV
(d) Rhinovirus
Answer:
(a) H5N1
Question 6.
The infectious and contagious bacterial disease that affects cattle, buffaloes, horses, sheep and goats is
(a) anthrax
(b) rinderpest
(c) tick fever
(d) necrosis
Answer:
(a) anthrax
Question 7.
The nutritive medium for growing bacteria and many fungi in the laboratory is called
(a) growth media
(b) suspension media
(c) culture media
(d) colonial media
Answer:
(c) culture media
Question 8.
The inoculum is added to the fresh milk in order to convert milk into curd, the term ‘inoculum’ here refers to
(a) a starter rich in vitamin B12
(b) a starter rich in proteins
(c) a starter containing millions of LAB
(d) anaerobic digester
Answer:
(c) a starter containing millions of LAB
Question 9.
The term ‘molecular scissors’ refers to
(a) recombinant DNA
(b) restriction enzymes
(c) Taq polymerase
(d) palindromic nucleotide sequences.
Answer:
(b) restriction enzymes
Question 10.
The term ‘chemical knife’ refers to
(a) polymerases
(b) endonucleases
(c) ribonucleases
(d) cellulases.
Answer:
(b) endonucleases
Question 11.
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the genetic modification of crops?
(a) It makes corps more tolerant to abiotic stresses.
(b) It results in decreased efficiency of mineral usage by plants.
(c) It helps to reduce post-harvest losses.
(d) It enhances the nutritional value of food.
Answer:
(b) It results in decreased efficiency of mineral usage by plants.
Question 12.
‘Golden rice’ developed through transgene approach is enriched with
(a) high lysine content
(b) high methionine content
(c) high glutenin content
(d) high vitamin A content.
Answer:
(d) high vitamin A content.
Question 13.
Several plant and animal species present together at a place constitute a
(a) genus
(b) population
(c) biome
(d) community
Answer:
(d) community
Question 14.
The branch of science which studies the interactions among organisms and between organisms and physical environment is called as
(a) epidemiology
(b) ecology
(c) ethology
(d) etiology
Answer:
(b) ecology
Question 15.
Which of the following pairs is not correct?
(a) E. Haeckel – Coined the term ‘Ecology’
(b) Tansley – Coined the term ‘Ecosystem’
(c) R. Mishra – Father of Indian Ecology
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these
Question 16.
Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in dense vegetation is called
(a) stratification
(b) species composition
(c) standing crop
(d) trophic structure
Answer:
(a) stratification
Question 17.
In India, we find mangoes, with different flavours, colours, fibre content, sugar content and even shelf-life. The large variation is on account of
(a) species diversity
(b) induced mutations
(c) genetic diversity
(d) hybridisation
Answer:
(c) genetic diversity
Question 18.
Western ghats have a greater number of amphibian species than the Eastern Ghats. What kind of diversity does it represent?
(a) Species diversity
(b) Genetic diversity
(c) Ecological diversity
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Species diversity
Question 19.
The Government of India has passed the Environment (Protection) Act in the year
(a) 1990
(b) 1987
(c) 1986
(d) 1992
Answer:
(c) 1986
Question 20.
Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to
(a) eating fruits preserved in tin containers
(b) inhalation of seasonal pollen
(c) low temperature
(d) a hot and humid environment
Answer:
(b) inhalation of seasonal pollen
Question 21.
Which one of the following processes results in the formation of a clone of bacteria?
(a) Regeneration
(b) Budding
(c) Binary fission
(d) Fragmentation
Answer:
(c) Binary fission
Question 22.
Asexual reproduction is seen in members of Kingdom
(a) Monera
(b) Plantae
(c) Animalia
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 23.
During binary fission in Amoeba which of the following organelles is duplicated?
(a) Plasma membrane
(b) Nucleus
(c) Contractile
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Nucleus
Question 24.
Vegetative propagation is the term used for
(a) sexual reproduction in animals
(b) sexual reproduction in plants
(c) asexual reproduction in animals
(d) asexual reproduction in plants
Answer:
(d) asexual reproduction in plants
Question 25.
Which of the following is not used for vegetative propagation?
(a) Bud
(b) Bulbil
(c) Turion
(d) Antherozoid
Answer:
(d) Antherozoid
Question 26.
The stamens represent
(a) microsporangia
(b) male gametophyte
(c) male gametes
(d) microsporophylls
Answer:
(d) microsporophylls
Question 27.
Anther is generally
(a) monosporangiate
(b) bisporangiate
(c) tetrasporangiate
(d) trisporangiate
Answer:
(c) tetrasporangiate
Question 28.
Which of the following is correct about mammalian testes?
(a) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, Leydig’s cells
(b) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, Seminiferous tubules
(c) Sertoli cells, Seminiferous tubules, Leyding’s cells
(d) Graafian follicle, Leydig’s cells, Seminiferous tubule
Answer:
(c) Sertoli cells, Seminiferous tubules, Leyding’s cells
Question 29.
The nutritive cells found in seminiferous tubules are
(a) Leydig’s cells
(b) atretic follicular cells
(c) Sertoli cells
(d) chromaffin cells
Answer:
(c) Sertoli cells
Question 30.
Amniocentesis is a technique used to
(a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
(b) pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo
(c) determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
Question 31.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) Amniocentesis and CVS (chorionic villi sampling) are the techniques of detection of foetal disorders during early pregnancy
(b) Reproductive health refers to healthy reproductive organs with normal functions.
(c) India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive health.
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 32.
____ pairs of contrasting traits were studied by Mendel in pea plant.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 10
Answer:
(b) 7
Question 33.
Some of the dominant traits studied by Mental were
(a) round seed shape, green seed colour and axial flower position
(b) terminal flower position, green pod colour and inflated pod shape
(c) violet flower colour, green pod colour, round seed shape
(d) wrinkled seed shape, yellow pod colour, and axial flower position.
Answer:
(c) violet flower colour, green pod colour, round seed shape
Question 34.
Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(a) Purines – Adenine and Guanine
(b) Pyrimidines – Cytosine and Uracil
(c) Nucleosides – Adenosine and Thymidine
(d) DNA – Basic biomolecule
Answer:
(d) DNA – Basic biomolecule
Question 35.
If a double-stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it?
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 30%
(d) 60%
Answer:
(c) 30%